[R-sig-ME] random effect variance greater than output variable variance

[ben pelzer]

 Dear Norman,

The random intercepts in your model are related to (as always) value zero
of your predictors, i.e. X=0, R1=0 and R2=0. These 0-values may be far out
of the actual or possible range of values. This means that the intercept
variance is about variance between locations, say, with zero disease and
zero rainfall in both seasons. If you do not want this, rescale X, R1 and
R2 so that value zero is "in range".

Further, and that is also a reason that I respond, I was wondering if it is
a good idea to estimate random effects if there are so few units, like only
five "fixed" years e.g. A.f.a.i.k. one should have at least 20 units or so,
but maybe you or someone else could correct me.

Regards, Ben.

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