[R-meta] Why total variation differs in two rma.mv models?

Yuhang Hu yh342 @end|ng |rom n@u@edu
Tue Jan 10 05:26:34 CET 2023

Dear Colleagues,

I have fit an intercept-only model like:

m1 = rma.mv(yi ~ 1, V=V, random = ~1|study/effect)

And then the same model with some moderators:

m2 = rma.mv(yi ~ mod1*mod2 + X1 + X2, V=V, random = ~1|study/effect)

When I compare the **total variation** (sum of the variance components)
across the two models, "m1" has a much larger estimate than "m2".

I wonder how that could be when both models use the same set of effect

Thank you so much!
Yuhang Hu

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