[R-sig-ME] [Lme4-authors] Fixing the level 1 residual variance
Ben Bolker
bbolker at gmail.com
Sat May 3 00:35:20 CEST 2014
On 14-05-02 05:45 PM, Douglas Bates wrote:
> On Fri, May 2, 2014 at 4:23 PM, Ben Bolker <bbolker at gmail.com
> <mailto:bbolker at gmail.com>> wrote:
>
> On 14-05-02 03:43 PM, Douglas Bates wrote:
> > On Fri, May 2, 2014 at 9:23 AM, Charlotte Arndt
> <arndtch at uni-landau.de <mailto:arndtch at uni-landau.de>
> > <mailto:arndtch at uni-landau.de <mailto:arndtch at uni-landau.de>>> wrote:
> >
> > Dear Sir / Madam,
> > I am analyzing some data by means of multivariate multilevel
> models
> > and want to fix the residual variance on level 1 to zero. In HLM,
> > you can do this by fixing the level 1 residual variance (sigma
> > square) to a very small value, e.g. 0.00001. Is it possible to
> > constrain the level 1 residual variance with lme4? It would be
> > great, if I could use lme4 for my analyses. Thanking you in
> advance.
> >
> >
> > I forget how the "levels" are numbered in the multilevel modeling
> > literature but as you say "residual variance" I imagine you are
> > referring to the variance of the conditional distribution of the
> > response given the random effects. The way the model is defined
> and fit
> > in the lme4 package the covariance matrix of the random effects is
> > defined relative to this variance. In other words it would not be
> > possible to fit the model in the way you describe.
> >
> > Actually I can't imagine how such a model could make sense. Where
> does
> > the variability in the conditional distribution get absorbed?
>
>
> Actually, this can be done with blme. See
>
>
> But what does it mean? What model is being fit?
This is essentially the same model that is being fitted when one
computes the likelihood profile for the residual variance; that is, the
scaled deviance is computed on the basis of the theta parameters, then
the deviance is computed on the basis of the specified residual variance.
code from devfun2:
thpars <- Sv_to_Cv(pars,n=vlist,s=sigma)
.Call(lmer_Deviance, pp$ptr(), resp$ptr(), thpars)
sigsq <- sigma^2
pp$ldL2() - ldW + (resp$wrss() + pp$sqrL(1))/sigsq +
n * log(2 * pi * sigsq)
where ldW is the sum of the log weights (if any)
Makes sense to me ...
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