[R-sig-ME] binomial fixed-effect p-values by simulation

[Ken Beath]

On 24/08/2008, at 2:16 AM, Daniel Ezra Johnson wrote:

> What would be the difference between simulating the z-statistic (if
> I'm getting this, it would be determining what proportion of the
> simulations have a z-statistic as large as the one from the observed
> data) versus doing the same thing with the difference of
> log-likelihoods)?
>
> One difference I see is that with the z-statistic approach there is no
> need to fit a null model, only the alternative model (to data
> generated by the null model)?
>
> D
>


They should produce similar results and which is better is probably of  
theoretical rather than practical interest.

  I will try this with a commercial program I have that does both.

Ken