[R-sig-ME] binomial fixed-effect p-values by simulation

Daniel Ezra Johnson danielezrajohnson at gmail.com
Sat Aug 23 18:16:17 CEST 2008

What would be the difference between simulating the z-statistic (if
I'm getting this, it would be determining what proportion of the
simulations have a z-statistic as large as the one from the observed
data) versus doing the same thing with the difference of

One difference I see is that with the z-statistic approach there is no
need to fit a null model, only the alternative model (to data
generated by the null model)?


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