[R-sig-ME] binomial fixed-effect p-values by simulation

[Daniel Ezra Johnson]

What would be the difference between simulating the z-statistic (if
I'm getting this, it would be determining what proportion of the
simulations have a z-statistic as large as the one from the observed
data) versus doing the same thing with the difference of
log-likelihoods)?

One difference I see is that with the z-statistic approach there is no
need to fit a null model, only the alternative model (to data
generated by the null model)?

D