[R-meta] Direction of the effect sizes
Michael Dewey
lists at dewey.myzen.co.uk
Thu Dec 7 13:24:01 CET 2017
Dear Miguel
Can you show us an example of the model you are proposing? I think that
with a careful choice of moderators the problem may be solvable.
On 06/12/2017 17:57, Miguel García Kml wrote:
> Dear Michael:
>
> Thank you very much for your help. What I did was to do the
> meta-analysis by groups to avoid this problem, but due to my
> inexperience I wanted to be sure that it was correct and my question
> made sense.
>
> However, I still worry about the sign, especially in the meta-regression
> since, for example, longer exposure times will produce larger effects
> (both positive and negative, depending on the music and task), and if I
> do not use the absolute values the effects will be canceled, implying
> something that is not correct. Does this reasoning make any sense?
>
> Miguel
>
> 2017-12-05 14:16 GMT+01:00 Michael Dewey <lists at dewey.myzen.co.uk
> <mailto:lists at dewey.myzen.co.uk>>:
>
> Dear Miguel
>
> I think the answer is going to depend on exactly what analysis you
> are doing. If you analyse the studies in several separate m-a then I
> do not see any problem as the differences come out in the
> interpretation. If you are going to do a multi-level m-a with both
> outcomes and both interventions included then the problem will be
> taken care of by the effect of the moderators and possibly their
> interaction.
>
> I can see that things may in some cases be made easier by reflecting
> the effect sizes (multiplying by -1) for some groups of studies but
> I find it hard to think of a problem which would be solved by using
> absolute values. I suppose if you were trying to detect a form of
> bias which meant that too few studies near the null were available
> it might be necessary.
>
> Michael
>
>
> On 05/12/2017 10:32, Miguel García Kml wrote:
>
> Hello everyone!
>
> A doubt has arisen that is perhaps quite basic/absurd, but which
> takes me
> into my head for a while. I will try to explain my doubt in the
> simplest
> way.
>
> Imagine that we have two styles of music (let's say classical
> and rock) and
> different psychological measures (scores in a memory task and
> levels of
> anxiety). Suppose that classical music is tremendously relaxing and
> therefore reduces anxiety levels, but it will worsen the results
> in memory
> tasks. On the other hand, rock music will increase anxiety
> levels, but will
> improve memorization. In this way, studies would display
> positive and
> negative effect sizes in memory scores and anxiety, which indicates
> effectiveness, no matter what the direction is (strange example,
> but it is
> easier to understand that way).
>
> Two doubts arise regarding this:
>
> 1) Should I use the absolute values of the effect size? since,
> although
> some ES are negative, it indicates effectiveness as a whole (my
> meta-analysis is about effectiveness). For instance, classical music
> exposure might display relaxing effects (+ES) that are
> incompatible with
> memorization (-ES), but as a whole, it shows effectiveness
> regardless of
> the direction of the effect size.
>
> 2) If I should use the absolute values, should I use them in all the
> analyzes? (i.e., meta-regression, funnel plot, influence
> diagnosis, etc.)
> Or perhaps just in the regression analysis to be able to explain the
> heterogeneity in terms of effectiveness? I am confused.
>
> I hope that I have explained my question correctly, and I
> apologize if it's
> too obvious. Thank you very much!
>
> Best,
>
> Miguel
>
> [[alternative HTML version deleted]]
>
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> --
> Michael
> http://www.dewey.myzen.co.uk/home.html
> <http://www.dewey.myzen.co.uk/home.html>
>
>
--
Michael
http://www.dewey.myzen.co.uk/home.html
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