[Rd] d-p-q-r-tests: why is plnorm(exp(Inf)) equal pnorm(Inf)?
Thomas Hoffmann" <firstname.lastname@example.org
Sat, 18 Mar 00 00:04:10 +0100
I stumbled across a result of d-p-q-r-tests:
d-p-q-r-tests expects pnorm(Inf) and pnorm(-Inf) to give the same results as plnorm(exp(Inf))
and plnorm(exp(-Inf)), respectively.
Does this mean that all expressions result in NaN (which I expect for the 3rd and 4th expression only) or
does it mean that R can prevent the exp(Inf) to be evaluated before being parsed in the context of plnorm?
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