Quick question:
If my hierarchical linear model has a slope of an L1 predictor being
predicted by fixed effects of L2 predictors, does it have to be a random
slopes model (and be given a random term)?  It appears that allowing the
slopes to vary randomly does not empirically add anything to the model, and
for parsimony, I would be inclined to give the L1 predictor a fixed slope
(but keep the fixed effects of the L2 predictors that predict the L1
predictor).  But if my model specification requires a random slope, I can
leave it in.  Thanks in advance for your help!

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