[R-sig-ME] categorical random effects correlation in lme4
Henrik Singmann
henrik.singmann at psychologie.uni-freiburg.de
Wed May 22 11:56:55 CEST 2013
Hi Andrew,
I think one of the problems is that in your model fm1_ml does not what you want. In this model you only estimate the random slopes but *not* the random intercepts for the prmiary_ther. As the lme4 faq (http://glmm.wikidot.com/faq) explains:
(0+x|group): random slope of x within group: no variation in intercept
What you want is one of the following:
(x|group): random slope of x within group with correlated intercept
(1|group) + (0+x|group): uncorrelated random intercept and random slope within group
I hope this helps,
Henrik
Am 21/05/2013 17:41, schrieb Andrew McAleavey:
> Hi,
>
> I'm currently investigating a question of relative effectiveness of
> therapists, and the particular question is whether some therapists are
> differentially effective with white versus racial/ethnic minority clients
> (this is coded as a binary variable called "white" in this data). We have
> conceptualized this as a cross-level random effect, so the model has one
> random effect for therapist intercept and one effect for the difference in
> effectiveness between their white and nonwhite clients.
>
> I am relatively new to lme4, but I think I have specified the model
> correctly (the fixed effects represent client pretreatment severity and the
> nonsignificant fixed effect of binary race; they don't seem to impact the
> estimation problem). Here's the model of interest:
>> print(fm1_ml <- lmer(DI ~ first_di + white + (0 +
> factor(white)|primary_ther), rem3post, REML=F), corr=F)
>
> The problem is that the two random effects are appearing to correlate at r
> = 1.000. I think this is an estimation problem, and probably indicates that
> the random variables aren't accounting for all that much variance. I'm
> dubious of interpreting this model, therefore. However, when comparing it
> to the random intercepts only model using the LRT, there is a significant
> difference, suggesting that even though the explained variance is (very)
> small, it may be worth including:
>> anova(fm1_a_ml, fm1_ml)
> Data: rem3post
> Models:
> fm1_a_ml: DI ~ first_di + factor(white) + (1 | primary_ther)
> fm1_ml: DI ~ first_di + factor(white) + (0 + factor(white) | primary_ther)
> Df AIC BIC logLik Chisq Chi Df
> Pr(>Chisq)
> fm1_a_ml 5 4982.7 5011.3 -2486.3
> fm1_ml 7 4979.9 5019.9 -2482.9 6.7871 2 0.03359 *
>
> My question is basically this: How should I interpret these results? There
> are significant differences between therapists in terms of their relative
> effectiveness with white vs. nonwhite clients, but they're just small? Or
> is even this not justified? Would it be safer to say that there are likely
> no estimable differences? Am I missing something else?
>
> Thanks a lot,
> Andrew McAleavey
>
> Here's the model of interest output:
>> print(fm1_ml <- lmer(DI ~ first_di + factor(white) + (0 +
> factor(white)|primary_ther), rem3post, REML=F), corr=F)
> Linear mixed model fit by maximum likelihood
> Formula: DI ~ first_di + factor(white) + (0 + factor(white) | primary_ther)
> Data: rem3post
> AIC BIC logLik deviance REMLdev
> 4980 5020 -2483 4966 4983
> Random effects:
> Groups Name Variance Std.Dev. Corr
> primary_ther factor(white) 0 0.0417050 0.204218
> factor(white)1 0.0044086 0.066397 1.000
> Residual 0.5099596 0.714115
> Number of obs: 2263, groups: primary_ther, 192
>
> Fixed effects:
> Estimate Std. Error t value
> (Intercept) 0.45138 0.06007 7.514
> first_di 0.48009 0.02360 20.338
> factor(white)1 0.01140 0.03298 0.346
>
--
Dipl. Psych. Henrik Singmann
PhD Student
Albert-Ludwigs-Universität Freiburg, Germany
http://www.psychologie.uni-freiburg.de/Members/singmann
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