[R-sig-ME] independent random effects with equal variances

[Christos Hatzis]

Independence, equal variance and the implicit normality assumption wouldn't
imply that these random effects are IID from the same N(0, sigma)
distribution?  Wouldn't then this be equivalent to

y ~ x + (1|R)

where R is the "combined" random effect?

-Christos


Christos Hatzis, Ph.D.
Nuvera Biosciences, Inc.
400 West Cummings Park, Suite 5350
Woburn, MA 01801



-----Original Message-----
From: r-sig-mixed-models-bounces at r-project.org
[mailto:r-sig-mixed-models-bounces at r-project.org] On Behalf Of Douglas Bates
Sent: Wednesday, May 04, 2011 1:56 PM
To: Hae Kyung Im
Cc: r-sig-mixed-models at r-project.org
Subject: Re: [R-sig-ME] independent random effects with equal variances

On Wed, May 4, 2011 at 10:47 AM, Hae Kyung Im <haky at uchicago.edu> wrote:
> Dear list,

> does anyone know of an easy way to enforce equal variance for two
independent random effects?

> So I would like to fit this model with equal variances for R1 and R2

> y ~ x + (1|R1) + (1|R2)

I don't think that would be easily done under the current setup.

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