[R-sig-ME] random factor variance

Daniel Ezra Johnson danielezrajohnson at gmail.com
Wed May 20 16:25:28 CEST 2009

On Wed, May 20, 2009 at 8:37 AM, Andrew Dolman <andydolman at gmail.com> wrote:
> Whatever your groups are (your R1), there's no difference between them, or
> at least so little that the variance is estimated as 0.

I think this often happens when there is a difference between groups
on the surface, but the model is telling you these differences are
actually nothing more than what would be predicted to occur by chance,
given the other parameters of the model (e.g. individual/subject

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