[R-meta] Dealing with effect size dependance with a small number of studies
Viechtbauer, Wolfgang (SP)
wo||g@ng@v|echtb@uer @end|ng |rom m@@@tr|chtun|ver@|ty@n|
Tue Feb 9 13:02:18 CET 2021
Indeed, the specific values used for the coding do not matter, just that they are unique for each row.
As a check, one can also examine the log likelihoods of the two models:
full <- rma.mv(ES_g, V, random = ~ 1 | IDpaper / IDstudy / IDsubsample / IDeffect, data=MA_dat)
reduced <- rma.mv(ES_g, V, random = ~ 1 | IDpaper / IDeffect, data=MA_dat)
fitstats(full, reduced)
You should find that they are the same (the AIC, BIC, and AICc will differ, since the full model has more parameters).
Best,
Wolfgang
>-----Original Message-----
>From: Danka Puric [mailto:djaguard using gmail.com]
>Sent: Tuesday, 09 February, 2021 12:57
>To: Viechtbauer, Wolfgang (SP)
>Cc: R meta
>Subject: Re: [R-meta] Dealing with effect size dependance with a small number of
>studies
>
>Dear Wolfgang,
>
>thanks a lot!
>
>We used a slightly different scheme for coding:
>IDstudy IDeffect
>1 11
>1 12
>2 21
>3 31
>3 32
>3 33
>4 41
>4 42
>but it's still explicit coding, so it's good to know that the two models are
>identical. Nevertheless, we will report the full model.
>
>All the best,
>Danka
>
>On Tue, Feb 9, 2021 at 12:41 PM Viechtbauer, Wolfgang (SP)
><wolfgang.viechtbauer using maastrichtuniversity.nl> wrote:
>Dear Danka,
>
>Indeed, when a variance component in such a model is estimated to be zero, then
>this is the same as dropping this particular random effect from the model. Whether
>your two models below are really identical though depends on how you coded the ID
>variables. There is what could be called implicit and explicit coding of the
>levels. Implicit coding would for example be:
>
>IDstudy IDeffect
>1 1
>1 3
>2 1
>3 1
>3 3
>3 4
>4 1
>4 2
>
>and then using 'random = ~ 1 | IDstudy / IDeffect'.
>
>Explicit coding would be:
>
>IDstudy IDeffect
>1 1
>1 2
>2 3
>3 4
>3 5
>3 6
>4 7
>4 8
>
>Then one can still use 'random = ~ 1 | IDstudy / IDeffect' or equivalently 'random
>= list(~ 1 | IDstudy, ~ 1 | IDeffect)'.
>
>If the IDstudy variance component is estimated to be 0, then this is identical to
>'random = ~ 1 | IDeffect' **only under explicit coding**. If implicit coding was
>used, then one would have to use, for example, 'random = ~ 1 |
>interaction(IDstudy, IDeffect)'.
>
>So, in your case, if you used implicit coding (so that IDeffect jumps back to 1
>when IDsubsample changes), then the two would not be the same.
>
>As for what to report: I would also report the results from the full model.
>
>Best,
>Wolfgang
>
>>-----Original Message-----
>>From: R-sig-meta-analysis [mailto:r-sig-meta-analysis-bounces using r-project.org] On
>>Behalf Of Danka Puric
>>Sent: Tuesday, 09 February, 2021 11:15
>>To: R meta
>>Subject: Re: [R-meta] Dealing with effect size dependance with a small number of
>>studies
>>
>>Hi everyone,
>>
>>I have a (hopefully short) additional question. I just recently
>>remembered that we have another level of potential effect size
>>dependence in our data - the level of the journal article / paper.
>>Therefore, the theoretically most complete model would be:
>>es <- rma.mv(ES_g, V, random = ~ 1 | IDpaper / IDstudy / IDsubsample /
>>IDeffect, data=MA_dat)
>>
>>For this model I'm getting zero variance (to four decimal places) for
>>IDstudy and IDsubsample random effects, which makes it (from what I
>>can tell) numerically identical to this simplified model:
>>es <- rma.mv(ES_g, V, random = ~ 1 | IDpaper / IDeffect, data=MA_dat)
>>
>>I was planning on reporting the full model in the manuscript, noting
>>that the variances at certain levels are zero. When testing for the
>>effects of moderators I would also include all levels. Is this the
>>right way to go about this?
>>
>>Thanks in advance,
>>Danka
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