Dear list,
I read in a paper that GWR is said to perform better than OLS regression, if  interquartile range (Q3-Q1) of GWR coefficients is beyond
(OLS coefficient-1 Standard error, OLS coefficient+1 Standard error). 

My question is why 1 standard error is chosen here? Why not 2 standard error in place of 1 standard error? or why not 0.5 standard error?
If you could clarify this to me, I would really appreciate that.
Milan Sharma

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