[R-sig-Geo] Moran I and General Trend
Sotos
sotosko at yahoo.gr
Wed Aug 24 11:34:56 CEST 2005
Dear All,
I am a bit confused regarding the use of Global Moran
and I hope you can help me clarify the following:
Moran's I, should not be used if the mean and the
variance are not constant in the layer. So, if there
is a trend (first order effect) in the data (i.e. a
north - south divide) Moran's I should not be used.
However isn't that a positive autocorrelation in the
data (low with low and high with high)? Isn't that
what Moran is actually measuring?
I understand that in this case local moran is more
proper to use, but what about Global Moran in the
above situation?
Any thoughts?
Thanks in advance
s.
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