Hi all,
   I am running a bivariate regression with the following:

p1=c(184,155,676,67,922,22,76,24,39)
p2=c(1845,1483,2287,367,1693,488,435,1782,745)
I1=c(1530,1505,2505,204,2285,269,1271,298,2023)
I2=c(8238,6247,6150,2748,4361,5549,2657,3533,5415)
R1=I1-p1
R2=I2-p2

x1=cbind(p1,R1)
y1=cbind(p2,R2)

fit1=lm(y1~-1+x1)
summary(fit1)

Response 2:
Coefficients:
     Estimate Std. Error t value Pr(>|t|)
x1p1  -1.4969     2.7004  -0.554  0.59662
x1R1   3.0937     0.8366   3.698  0.00767 **


One can see that in the second regression, i.e. R2~-1+p1+R1,  the coefficient for p1 is not significant. I wonder if I can run this bivariate regression again with the constraint that the coefficient for p1 in the second regression equation  is zero? Thanks a lot.

Sincerely,
Yanwei Zhang
Department of Actuarial Research and Modeling
Munich Re America
Tel: 609-275-2176
Email: yzhang@munichreamerica.com<mailto:yzhang@munichreamerica.com>


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