Hi,
A have small technical question about the calculation of R-squared
using lm().
In a study case with experimental values, it seems more logical to
force the regression line to pass through origin with lm(y ~ x +0).
However, R-squared values are higher in this case than when I
compute the linear regression with lm(y ~ x).
It seems to be surprising to me: is this result normal ? Is there any
problem in the R-squared value calculated in this case ?
Thanks,
Etienne Toffin
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Etienne Toffin, PhD Student
Unit of Social Ecology
Université Libre de Bruxelles, CP 231
Boulevard du Triomphe
B-1050 Brussels
Belgium
http://www.ulb.ac.be/sciences/use/toffin.html
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