Dear all,

I have a stat question that may not be related to R, but I would like to
have your advice.

 

I have just read a medical paper in which the authors report the 1-p (where
p is the cumulative survival probability from the Kaplan Meier curve) as
incidence of disease.  

 

Specifically, the study followed ~12000 women on drug A and ~20000 women on
drug B for 12 months.  During that period 29 women on drug A and 80 on drug
B had the disease.  The incidence of disease for A and B was 0.24% and 0.30%
respectively.  However, instead of reporting these numbers, they report the
1-p figure which was 0.3% for A and 0.6% for B. 

 

So, the incidence from 1-p was substantially higher than the actual
incidence.  My question is: is it appropriate to use 1-p estimated from
Kaplan-Meier as the incidence of disease?  If not, why not? 

 

Regards,

Nguyen

 

____________________________ 
Nguyen Dinh Nguyen, 

Bone and Mineral Research Program 
Garvan Institute of Medical Research 
St Vincent's Hospital 
384 Victoria Street, Darlinghurst 
Sydney, NSW 2010 
Australia 
Tel; 61-2-9295 8274 
Fax: 61-2-9295 8241 
E-mail: n.nguyen@garvan.org.au 

 


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