In the logistic regression model, there is no residual

log (pi/(1-pi)) = beta_0 + beta_1*X_1 + .....

But glm model will return

residuals

What is that?

How to understand this? Can we put some residual in the logistic regression
model by replacing pi with pi' (the estimated pi)?

 log (pi'/(1-pi')) = beta_0 + beta_1*X_1 + .....+ ei

Thanks!

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