The article on BMA (Bayesian model averaging) presents most valuable tools for model selection, but I find one detail confusing in Example 1. In page 4 of RNews 5/2, second paragraph says that the probability of Time variable not being in the model is 0.445. It seems to me that the figure should be 1 - 0.445 = 0.555, because p!=0.445 is the prob. of Time variable being in the model. The plot in Fig.2 is in line with this, since the height of scaled PDF seems to be 0.445 and the black spike points to 0.555. Have I understood this correctly?

 

Regards, Antti Pirjetä, PhD student, Helsinki School of Economics. Mail to: pirjeta@hse.fi

 

 

 

 

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