[R] Force regression line to a 1:1 relationship
ross.culloch at dur.ac.uk
Thu Sep 15 10:49:33 CEST 2011
Many thanks to all of you! AV plots are what I am trying to plot. Perhaps to
reduce confusion I can give you an example of what I am doing:
I am looking at behaviour of re-sighted individuals over two time points. I
use lm() on these data and obtain the residuals.
Then I am interested to know whether an individuals' residual is related to
a site fidelity mesure over the two time periods. Such that an individual
that maintains a high degree of site fidelity shows less variation (has a
smaller residual value) in (for example) aggressive behaviour. Therefore,
using the absolute values of the residuals (as I am not interested in less
or more aggressive) I plot these against the site fidelity measure to assess
whether there is a correlation.
The 1:1 relationship was to assess the deviation from 'absolute agreement',
where the method above takes into consideration plasticity/noise between the
two time periods.
I hope this is a little clear and, although not a quote from the reviewer,
this is essentially what was suggested.
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