[R] Force regression line to a 1:1 relationship

RCulloch ross.culloch at dur.ac.uk
Tue Sep 13 15:43:13 CEST 2011

Dear John, 

Thank you for that, and for explaining why the abline() command wont/dosen't
work. The approach is based on reviewers comments that I am a tad sceptical
about myself but yet curious enough to test their suggestion......I don't
think it is very straightforward to explain; however, it involves using the
residuals of the lm() and plotting them against a covariate to assess
whether or not the deviation from the 1:1 relationship is in someway
influenced by the other covariate. I hope that shines a small amount of
light on this rather unorthodox approach?!

Many thanks again for that John! 


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