[R] Force regression line to a 1:1 relationship
RCulloch
ross.culloch at dur.ac.uk
Tue Sep 13 15:43:13 CEST 2011
Dear John,
Thank you for that, and for explaining why the abline() command wont/dosen't
work. The approach is based on reviewers comments that I am a tad sceptical
about myself but yet curious enough to test their suggestion......I don't
think it is very straightforward to explain; however, it involves using the
residuals of the lm() and plotting them against a covariate to assess
whether or not the deviation from the 1:1 relationship is in someway
influenced by the other covariate. I hope that shines a small amount of
light on this rather unorthodox approach?!
Many thanks again for that John!
Ross
--
View this message in context: http://r.789695.n4.nabble.com/Force-regression-line-to-a-1-1-relationship-tp3809733p3810101.html
Sent from the R help mailing list archive at Nabble.com.
More information about the R-help
mailing list