[R] general question on binomial test / sign test
Greg Snow
Greg.Snow at imail.org
Wed Sep 1 23:17:34 CEST 2010
Try thinking this one through from first principles, you are essentially saying that your null hypothesis is that you are flipping a fair coin and you want to do a 2-tailed test. You then flip the coin exactly once, what do you expect to happen? The p-value of 1 just means that what you saw was perfectly consistent with what is predicted to happen flipping a single time.
Does that help?
If not, please explain what you mean a little better.
--
Gregory (Greg) L. Snow Ph.D.
Statistical Data Center
Intermountain Healthcare
greg.snow at imail.org
801.408.8111
> -----Original Message-----
> From: r-help-bounces at r-project.org [mailto:r-help-bounces at r-
> project.org] On Behalf Of Kay Cichini
> Sent: Wednesday, September 01, 2010 3:06 PM
> To: r-help at r-project.org
> Subject: [R] general question on binomial test / sign test
>
>
> hello,
>
> i did several binomial tests and noticed for one sparse dataset that
> binom.test(1,1,0.5) gives a p-value of 1 for the null, what i can't
> quite
> grasp. that would say that the a prob of 1/2 has p-value of 0 ?? - i
> must be
> wrong but can't figure out the right interpretation..
>
> best,
> kay
>
>
>
>
>
> -----
> ------------------------
> Kay Cichini
> Postgraduate student
> Institute of Botany
> Univ. of Innsbruck
> ------------------------
>
> --
> View this message in context: http://r.789695.n4.nabble.com/general-
> question-on-binomial-test-sign-test-tp2419965p2419965.html
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