[R] Mantel test!
Jason Sexton
sexton.jp at gmail.com
Tue Mar 3 17:24:47 CET 2009
Dear Gavin,
What is the interpretation of a simulated p-value of 1 in a mantel
test and how is the p-value derived? When we run two highly
negatively correlated matrices we get this result: r: -1, simulated p
value: 1
I would expect the high p-value of 1 to mean not significant. Could
you clarify?
Thank you,
Jason
Jason P. Sexton
Graduate Group in Ecology
University of California, Davis
(530) 752-1701
jpsexton at ucdavis.edu
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