[R] Mantel test!

Jason Sexton sexton.jp at gmail.com
Tue Mar 3 17:24:47 CET 2009

Dear Gavin,

What is the interpretation of a simulated p-value of 1 in a mantel  
test and how is the p-value derived?  When we run two highly  
negatively correlated matrices we get this result:  r: -1, simulated p  
value: 1

I would expect the high p-value of 1 to mean not significant.  Could  
you clarify?

Thank you,


Jason P. Sexton
Graduate Group in Ecology
University of California, Davis
(530) 752-1701
jpsexton at ucdavis.edu

More information about the R-help mailing list