[R] A question regarding R scoping

[Steve Lianoglou]

Hi,

On Aug 5, 2009, at 5:55 PM, Ivo Shterev wrote:

> I have a question related to scoping. Suppose we have 2 functions:
>
> f1 = function(i){i = 1}
>
> f2 = function(n){
> i = length(n)
> f1(i)
> }
>
> In other words, I would like i=1 regardless of n. Is this possible  
> without having f1 in the body of f2? Thanks in advance!

Uhm ... what? You want i = 1 where, exactly? You want to call to f1(i)  
to set i to 1 in f2?

Sorry, I don't really follow. Can you be a bit more explicit?

-steve

--
Steve Lianoglou
Graduate Student: Computational Systems Biology
   |  Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center
   |  Weill Medical College of Cornell University
Contact Info: http://cbio.mskcc.org/~lianos/contact