[R] OT: distribution of a pathological random variate

Daniel Lakeland dlakelan at street-artists.org
Wed Aug 29 19:45:32 CEST 2007

On Wed, Aug 29, 2007 at 10:39:17AM -0700, Horace Tso wrote:
> Folks,
> I wonder if anything could be said about the distribution of a random variate x, where
> x = N(0,1)/N(0,1)
> Obviously x is pathological because it could be 0/0. If we exclude this point, so the set is {x/(0/0)}, does x have a well defined distribution? or does it exist a distribution that approximates x. 

I think this is the standard Cauchy distribution:


Daniel Lakeland
dlakelan at street-artists.org

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