[R] If this is should be posted elsewhere, please advise

[roy wilson]

Hi,

I am puzzled by the relationship between the p-values asociated with the 
coefficients of a univariate logistic regression involving categorical 
variables and the p-value I get from Fisher's exact test of the 
associated 2 x 2 contingency table.

(1) The 2-sided p-value for the table is ~ 0.0015, whereas the p-value 
for the independent is 0.101 and the p-value for the intercept is ~0.56.

(2) I know the the coefficient for the independent is the ln(OR) 
(assuming I recall correctly). Most accounts I've seen ignore the 
intercept, say it's hard to interpret, or give an interpretation (with 
respect to the dataset as a single group) that I can't square with the 
interpretation of beta[1].

Thanks for help for redirection.



-- 
Roy Wilson
Learning Research Development Center
University of Pittsburgh
webpage: www.pitt.edu/~rwilson
email: rwilson at pitt.edu