[R] family question
murdoch at stats.uwo.ca
Mon Aug 28 21:46:28 CEST 2000
On Wed, 30 Aug 2000 15:38:35 -0400 (EDT), you wrote in message
<Pine.LNX.4.10.10008301511240.1977-100000 at bolker.zoo.ufl.edu>:
> Seems like a very odd setup but it does seem as though the code would do
>what you wanted. Also seems as though you could do some combinatorics to
>get the answer much more efficiently if you wanted to ... (i.e., write
>down the probabilities of having families that were (1 boy, 0 girl = 50%)
>(2 boy, 1 girl = dbinom(2,3,0.5) = 3/8), (3 boys, 2 girls), (4 boys, 3
>girls), etc., and then divide by the sum.
You've got the probabilities wrong. For example, to get 2 boys and 1
girl, the first child must be a girl (or there would be no more
children), and the last 2 both boys. So the probability is 1/8, not
3/8. To get 3 boys and 2 girls, the first is a girl, the second could
be either, the third depends on the first two. It's messy.
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