[Rd] assign("FALSE", TRUE)
Rolf Turner
r.turner at auckland.ac.nz
Mon Nov 17 20:49:21 CET 2008
It was recently pointed out by Wacek Kusnierczyk that although one is
prevented from doing
FALSE <- TRUE
one *can* do
assign("FALSE",TRUE)
and have an object named ``FALSE'' with value TRUE in one's workspace.
This apparently has no deleterious effects; e.g. doing
sample(1:7,replace=FALSE)
gives a random permutation of 1:7 as expected and desired. I.e. the
local object named ``FALSE'' is not used.
Still, this seems counterintuitive and a bit confusing. Is it the
intended
state of affairs? I would have thought that
FALSE <- <whatever>
and
assign("FALSE",<whatever>)
would be completely equivalent.
This is clearly not a very important issue, but it might bear some
thinking about.
cheers,
Rolf Turner
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