Hi,
these are comments/questions from a neophyte who asked questions about  this, 
one or 2 years ago on this list, and did not get clear answer !
is this bimodal distribution observed with GCRMA against the use of  
parametric tests, does it favor the use of non parametric tests ? Said  differently, 
should this distribution affect our choice regarding  statistical tests for 
subsequent analyses ?
I ve noticed that RMA data do not look similar to the one obtained  with 
GCRMA, regarding distribution: the 2 peaks are much more distinct with  GCRMA 
(which is supposed to go "deeper regarding background" ...this is very  shortly 
summarized). Is this the reason for such a difference ? Is this the GC  part of 
GCRMA which distinguishes absent or very low level signals from  present RNA 
more efficiently (maybe) than RMA that makes this difference of  distribution ?
thanks
Phil  

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